Hello,
Anyone can help me out with this question?
A corporation uses a calendar year for financial and tax reporting purposes and has $100 million of mortgage bonds due on January 15, Year 2. By January 10, Year 2, the corporation intends to refinance this debt with new long-term mortgage bonds and has entered into a financing agreement that clearly demonstrates its ability to consummate the refinancing. This debt is to be?
Classified as a long-term liability on the statement of financial position at December 31, Year 1.
My question is: On the balance sheet issue date, December 31, Year 1, the company doesn't plan to refinance. Why the debt is considered as long term, not short term?
Thanks,
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Xiaomin Liang
Accountant
San Francisco CA
United States
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